Why is $1 - \frac{2 {F_{π}}^{2} {γ_{ρ π π}}^{2}}{{m_{ρ}}^{2}} ≅ 0$ ?

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25 September 1967

journal article
research article
Published by American Physical Society (APS) in Physical Review Letters

Vol. 19 (13), 770-773
https://doi.org/10.1103/physrevlett.19.770

Abstract

DOI: https://doi.org/10.1103/PhysRevLett.19.770

Keywords

This publication has 10 references indexed in Scilit:

Saturation of Superconvergence Relations and Current-Algebra Sum Rules for Forward Amplitudes
Physical Review Letters, 1967
Algebra of Fields
Physical Review Letters, 1967
Electromagnetic Mass Difference of Pions
Physical Review Letters, 1967
Precise Relations between the Spectra of Vector and Axial-Vector Mesons
Physical Review Letters, 1967
Sum rules for mesons
Annals of Physics, 1967
Symmetry Predictions from Sum Rules without Saturation
Physical Review B, 1966
Relation Between the Pion-Nucleon and theρ-Meson Coupling Constants from Pion Scattering Lengths
Physical Review Letters, 1966
Algebra of Current Components and Decay Widths of $ρ$ and $K^{*}$ Mesons
Physical Review B, 1966
On the existence of axial vector mesons
Physics Letters, 1966
Partially Conserved Axial-Vector Current and the Decays of Vector Mesons
Physical Review Letters, 1966

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